My question is about part $(b)-(i)$. Is there an easier way to solve it other than proving that for any truth assignment $v:Form(P,S) \rightarrow \{T,F\}$, $v^{**} = v$? thanks.
2026-04-01 09:28:44.1775035724
Exercise $2.28$ Goldrei
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In some sense you can say that there is no simpler way, although technically you don't need the actual equality $v^{**} = v$, just that for every truth assignment $v$, there is some truth assignment $w$ such that $w^* = v$.
Expanding the definitions gives the proof:
(1) is trivial for the backward implication but uses the earlier remark for the forward implication.