Let $f_n(x) = x^n$. Prove ${f_n}$ converges on $(0,1)$ to a continuous function but does not converge uniformly.
Proof: Clearly, for any $\epsilon > 0$, for any $x$ in $(0,1)$, there exists $N$ such that for all $n > N$, $|f_n(x) - 0| < \epsilon.$ Therefore, $f_n$ converges to $f(x) = 0.$
For any $N > 0$, for all $\epsilon$ in $(0,1)$, there exists $x$ in $(0,1)$ such that $x> \epsilon^{\frac{1}{N+1}}.$ For such $x, |f_{N+1}(x)| > \epsilon.$ QED.
Is this proof correct? Is there a simpler way?
I hope my reviews come across as constructive, I think that's what OP is looking for.
To conclude, it is correct despite some flaws easily correctable by OP. This is a good example that can be nicely illustrated: