Let $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be differentiable function that satisfies $$ f(0)=1 \\ \forall x \in \mathbb{R}, \quad f(x+1)=\exp\left(3x^2+1\right)f(x)$$
I think a function $f$ exist which satisfies these conditions, but I don't have any evidence justify my opinion.
Can anyone prove or disprove this?

As pointed out by Kavi Rama Murthy and other contributors, I have rewritten my answer.
Note that $f(0)=1$ implies $f(x)>0$ for any $x\in\mathbb{Z}$.
Taking logarithm gives $\ln\frac{f(x+1)}{f(x)}=3x^2+1$.
For any $x\in\mathbb{Z}^+$,
$$ \begin{align*} \sum_{k=0}^{x-1}\ln\frac{f(k+1)}{f(k)} & =\sum_{k=0}^{x-1}(3k^2+1) \\ \ln\frac{f(x)}{f(0)} & =3\cdot\frac{x(x-1)(2x-1)}{6}+x \\ \ln f(x) & =\frac{2x^3-3x^2+3x}{2} \\ \end{align*} $$
For any $x\in\mathbb{Z}^-$,
$$ \begin{align*} \sum_{k=x}^{-1}\ln\frac{f(k+1)}{f(k)} & =\sum_{k=x}^{-1}(3k^2+1) \\ \ln\frac{f(0)}{f(x)} & =3\cdot\frac{(-x)(-x+1)(-2x+1)}{6}+(-x) \\ \ln f(x) & =\frac{2x^3-3x^2+3x}{2} \\ \end{align*} $$
Therefore, $\ln f(x)=\frac{2x^3-3x^2+3x}{2}$ for any $x\in\mathbb{Z}$.
To fill up the gap between consecutive integral values of $x$ with the differentiability requirement fulfilled, it can be assumed that $\ln f(x)=\frac{2x^3-3x^2+3x}{2}+\pi(x)$ for $x\in\mathbb{R}$ where $\pi:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is a differentiable function with the following conditions.
Therefore, $f(x)=\exp{\left(\frac{2x^3-3x^2+3x}{2}+\pi(x)\right)}$ for $x\in\mathbb{R}$.