In THE HAAR MEASURE ON FINITE QUANTUM GROUPS, van Daele gives an implausibly short proof of the existence of integrals in a finite-dimensional Hopf algebra.
I'm probably overlooking something obvious, but this proof feels very esoteric to me: I cannot draw it in pictures.
So:
Let $H$ be a f.d. Hopf-algebra. Then there exists a non-zero $t\in H$ s.t. for all $h\in H$ we have $h.t=\epsilon(h)t$.
Proof. Let $\{e_i\}$ be a basis of $H$ with corresponding dual basis $\{e^j\}$. Take any non-zero $b\in H$, and set $$ t = \sum_{i,(e_i)}\langle e^i, S^2(e_i'') b\rangle e_i'\ , $$ where $\langle f,h\rangle = f(h)$ is the pairing. Then, for any $h\in H$ we have \begin{align} \epsilon(h)t &~=~\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)}\langle e^i, h'S(h'')S^2(e_i'') b\rangle~ e_i'\\[1em] \tag{$\star$}&~=~\sum_{j,i,(e_i),(h)}\langle e^i, h' e_j\rangle~\langle e^j,S(h'')S^2(e_i'') b\rangle~ e_i'\\[1em] \tag{$\maltese$}&~=~\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)} \langle e^i, S(h''')S^2(h''e_i'') b \rangle~ h'e_i' \\[1em] \tag{$\spadesuit$}&~=~h \sum_{i,(e_i)} \langle e^i, S^2(e_i'')b\rangle ~e_i' \\ &~=~ ht \end{align}
The first equality is obvious (and of course the last one too). Next, $\star$ is probably something like inserting $1$ or $\operatorname{id}_H$ (which is given by $\operatorname{coev}_H(1)$), but I'm not sure?
But I don't even have a guess for $\maltese$ and $\spadesuit$.
For example, in $\maltese$, why is $h'$ suddenly not paired anymore, and where does the second antipode come from that acts on $h''$?
And $\spadesuit$ at least superficially seems to be using the definition of the antipode, but I don't think it actually does.
Please end my suffering.
The following is a failed attempt. The following is true: Assume for a second that the pairing is actually symmetric. Then
\begin{align}
&\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)} \langle e^i, S(h''')S^2(h''e_i'') b \rangle~ h'e_i' \\[1em]
~=~&\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)} \langle e^i, S(h''')S^2(e_i'')S^2(h'') b \rangle~ h'e_i' \\[1em]
~=~&\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)} \langle e^i, S(h'''S(h''))S^2(e_i'') b \rangle~ h'e_i' \\[1em]
~=~&\sum_{i,(e_i),(h)} \langle e^i, S^2(e_i'') b \rangle~ \epsilon({h''}) h'e_i' \\[1em]
~=~&h\sum_{i,(e_i)} \langle e^i, S^2(e_i'') b \rangle~ e_i' \ .
\end{align}
But I think the pairing is only symmetric if $H$ is commutative. So this is superfluous. Meh.
Nope. The solution to $\spadesuit$ is just \begin{align} S(h'')S^2(h' a) &= S(S(h'a)h'') = S(S(a)S(h')h'') = \epsilon(h)S(a)\ , \end{align} isn't it?
This doesn't answer the question, I think, but it gives an alternative proof which convinces me of the truth of the statement. (I'm still interested in understanding the original proof)
The argument can be seen from the following picture:
This is for the case $b=1$, as user m_t_ suggested. If $b$ is any other non-zero element then the proof will be completely analogous, because $b$ is attached on the right and above the two antipodes, so nothing will get in each other's way.
The steps are: