There is always an injection between $V^* \otimes V^*$ and $(V \otimes V)^*$ given by $$ f(v^* \otimes w^*)(x \otimes y)=v^*(x)w^*(y), $$ where $x,y \in V$. I've been given to understand that in infinite dimension it is not surjective. Does anybody can explain me why it is the case? Does anybody have a concrete and simple example where $V^* \otimes V^*$ is not isomorphic to $(V \otimes V)^*$
Edit. This problem is involved in basic theory of Hopf Algebra since the fact that in infinite dimension $V^* \otimes V^*$ is only a proper subset of $(V \otimes V)^*$ is the key point for which the dual of a co-algebra is an algebra, but in general the dual of an algebra is not a co-algebra.
Second Edit The answer given here doesn't seem to answer my question as the answer of Mariano does. So even if the question may seem a duplicate, the answer is not. And as Hardmath notes "the proposed duplicate does not restrict to the tensor product of a vector space with itself, and indeed the answer given there involves one factor being the dual of the other factor. It doesn't address the problem here."
The question that makes sense is:
and the answer is no. To see this we have to find something about the elements of the image of $T$ which is special.
Suppose that $\phi\in(V\otimes V)^*$ and consider the set $U(\phi)$ of all vectors $u\in V$ such that $\phi(u\otimes v)=0$ for all $v\in V$. This is a subspace of $V$.
If $a\in V^*\otimes V^*$, so that there are $n\geq0$ and $\phi_1,\dots,\phi_n$, $\psi_1,\dots,\psi_n\in V^*$ such that $a=\sum_{i=1}^n\phi_i\otimes\psi_i$, then the space $K(a)=\bigcap_{i=1}^n\ker\phi_i$ has finite codimension in $V$ and is contained in $U(T(a))$. This tells us that
Now, to show that $T$ is not surjective it is enough that we exhibit a $\phi\in (V\otimes V)^*$ such that $U(\phi)$ is not of finite codimension!
Let $\{e_i\}_{i\in I}$ be a basis for $V$. There is a unique $\phi\in(V\otimes V)^*$ such that $$\phi(e_i\otimes e_j)=\begin{cases}1, & \text{if $i=j$;} \\0, & \text{if not.}\end{cases}$$ Let $u\in V$. As we have a basis, there are scalars $a_i$, one for each $i\in I$ and almost all of which are zero, such that $u=\sum_{i\in I}a_ie_i$. If $j\in I$ is such that $a_i\neq0$, then $\phi(u\otimes e_i)=a_i\neq0$, and we see that $u\not\in U(\phi)$ unless $u=0$. In other words, we have $U(\phi)=0$ and certainly the zero subspace of $V$ does not have finite codimension in $V$. The element $\phi$ is therefore not in the image of the map $T$.
In fact, we can reverse this. Suppose that $\lambda\in(V\otimes V)^*$ is such that $U(\lambda)$ has finite codimension in $V$. Let $n$ be that codimension, let $\{u_1,\dots,u_n\}$ be a basis of $V/U(\lambda)$ and let $\{\bar\phi_1,\dots,\bar\phi_n\}$ be the corresponding dual basis for the dual space of $V/U(\lambda)$. Let $p:V\to V/U(\lambda)$ be the canonical map and for each $i\in\{1,\dots,n\}$ let $\phi_i=\bar\phi_i\circ p\in V^*$. As $\lambda$ vanishes on the subspace $U(\phi)\otimes V$ of $V\otimes V$, it induces a map $\Lambda:(V/U(\lambda))\otimes V\to k$ (here $k$ is the field) For each $i\in\{1,\dots,n\}$ we consider the map $\psi_i\in V^*$ such that $\psi_i(v)=\Lambda(u_i\otimes v)$. After all this setup, one can easily check now that $\lambda=T(\sum_{i=1}^n\phi_i\otimes\psi_i)$.
We have this proved: