Assume $f(x) \in L_1([a,b])$ and $x_0\in[a,b]$ is a point such that $f(x)\xrightarrow[x\to x_0]\ +\infty$.
Is there always exists a function $g(x) \in L_1([a,b])$ such that $f(x)=o(g(x))$ where $x\to x_0$?
In particular case, when $f(x) \in L_{1+\varepsilon}([a,b])$ for every $\varepsilon>0$ suitable function $g(x)$ exists. So, if counterexample exists, it's in $L_1$ and can't be in $L_{1+\varepsilon}$.
Yes there is .
WLOG $f\geq 0$. Let $M_t=\{f\geq t\}$ and $\lambda(t)= \int_{M_t}fdx$. Then
1) $\lambda(t)>0 $.
2) $ \lambda(t)\downarrow 0$ as $t\to\infty$.
3) $x_0\in M_t^o$, $\forall t\in\mathbb{R}_+$.
Choose $\{t_n\}_n$ by induction, which satisfies:
1) $t_{n+1}>t_n$.
2) $\lambda(t_n)\leq 3^{-n}$.
Define $g:=+\infty \cdot I_{\{f=+\infty\}}+\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^nI_{\{M_{t_n}-M_{t_{n+1}}\}}$. Then
$$\int fgdx= \sum_n 2^n\int_{M_{t_n}-M_{t_{n+1}}} fdx\leq\sum_n 2^n3^{-n}\leq 3.$$
$fg$ is what we want.