$\exists x(p(x)\rightarrow q(a)) \vdash \forall y p(y) \rightarrow q(a)$
How can we prove this with natural deduction? I couldn't any similar example from books or web. Do you have any idea?
$\exists x(p(x)\rightarrow q(a)) \vdash \forall y p(y) \rightarrow q(a)$
How can we prove this with natural deduction? I couldn't any similar example from books or web. Do you have any idea?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
You need the Natural Deduction rules for quantifiers.
1) $∃x(p(x)→q(a))$ --- premise
2) $∀yp(y)$ --- assumed [a]
3) $p(x)$ --- from 2) by $∀$-elim
4) $p(x)→q(a)$ --- assumed [b] for $∃$-elim
5) $q(a)$ --- from 3) and 4) by $\to$-elim
6) $q(a)$ --- from 5) and 4) and 1) by $∃$-elim, discharging [b]