I'm studying natural deduction for classical propositional logic, and I'm struggling with a point I cannot understand: when the book listed all the rules for natural deduction, it simply said that we have a list of objects in this logic: $\top, \bot, \land, \lor, \lnot, \implies $ (the symbols denotes respectively a true statement, a false statement, the "and" connective, the "or", the "not" and the "implies" connectives) and, based on the semantic function (sometimes called the interpretation function), we build up the rules for natural deduction.
Then, at a point, it says that only with the introduction and elimination rules for those symbols and connectives, we cannot prove some statements (for instance $A \lor \lnot A$, or $\lnot \lnot A \!\implies\! A$), so we need to add another rule called the Reductio ad Absurdum (RAA).
The point I cannot grasp is the lack of a proof that such wfs (well formed formulas) are undecidable without RAA or the excluded middle (tertium non datur, EM).
From that point I ask myself: in the intuitionistic logic (therefore a logic where the RAA or the EM does not hold), is there a way to show that a formula is undecidable? I'm not asking if there is a way to conclude that a formula is false (because the converse is true), I'm asking if there is a way to prove that neither $A$ nor $\lnot A$ are provable.
In intuitionistic and classical logic there is a standard way to show that a formula $A$ is unprovable or undecidable (i.e. both $A$ and $\lnot A$ are unprovable), it is based on the completeness theorem.
Completeness theorem says that a formula $A$ is provable (in intuitionistic natural deduction or equivalent system) if and only if $A$ is valid in all the structures (in intutionistic logic these structures are intuitionistic Kripke models).
So:
As correctly remarked by Henning Makholm in his comment, if a formula $B$ is provable in classical logic, then $\lnot B$ is unprovable in intuitionistic logic (since all intuitionistically provable formulas are classically provable). Therefore, a classically provable formula $B$ is intuitionistically undecidable (take for instance $A \lor \lnot A$, or $\lnot\lnot A \to A$) if and only if $B$ is intuitionistically unprovable.
Let us show that $A \lor \lnot A$ and $\lnot \lnot A \to A$ are unprovable (and then undecidable, since they are classically provable) in intuitionistic logic using the completeness theorem. Assume $A$ is a propositional variable. Consider the following Kripke model for propositional logic: $\mathcal{K} = (\{0,1\},\leq, \Vdash)$ where $\leq$ is the (total) order relation over $\{0,1\}$ defined by \begin{align} 0 \leq 0 && 0 \leq 1 && 1 \leq 1, \end{align} and $\Vdash$ is a binary relation from $\{0,1\}$ to the set of propositional variables such that $0 \not\Vdash A$ and $1 \Vdash A$. According to the definition of intuitionistic Kripke model for propositional logic, it is easy to check that $0 \not\Vdash A \lor \lnot A$ and $0 \not \Vdash \lnot\lnot A \to A$, which means that neither $A \lor \lnot A$ nor $\lnot\lnot A \to A$ are valid in $\mathcal{K}$. Thus, both $A \lor \lnot A$ and $\lnot \lnot A \to A$ are unprovable (and hence undecidable) in intuitionistic logic.
There is also a completeness theorem for classical logic: in the formulation given above, replace intutionistic natural deduction with classical natural deduction (or equivalent system), and Kripke models with truth tables (in the propositional case). Therefore, also in classical logic the completeness theorem (for classical logic) can be used to show that a formula is unprovable or undecidable.