I am reading Intro to Math Stats by Hogg, McKean & Craig and I've come across an example that I don't understand, and I am not sure if it's a mistake in the text or not. I disagree with the bold part:
Let $X$ be a continuous random variable with the pdf $f(x) = 2x$ which has support on the interval $(0, 1)$. Suppose $Y = \frac{1}{(1+X)}$. Then,
$E(Y) = \int_0^{1} \frac{2x}{1+x}dx$.
The support of a continuous random variable $X$ was previously defined in the text as all $x$ such that the $f_X(x) > 0$. Then in the above example, why isn't the support $(0, \infty)$? And the integral then would be from $0 $ to $\infty$ as well, no?
Some explanation appreciated :)
The support of a random variable depends on the context of the problem. For example, you could have a random variable $X$ with the property that it has support on $(0, \infty)$, but it would need to be appropriately normalized in order to be a valid PDF. That is, a random variable with support $\Omega$ must have the property that $\int_{\Omega} f_X (x) \ dx = 1$.
Consider your density, $f_X (x) = 2x$, and suppose for a contradiction that it has support on the entire positive real line. Then: \begin{align*} \int_{\Omega} f_X (x) \ dx = \int_0^{\infty} 2x \ dx = \frac{2x^2}{2} \Bigg|_0^{\infty} = x^2 \Bigg|_0^{\infty} = \infty. \end{align*} This is certainly not $1$, a contradiction. Suppose instead that it has support on $(0,1)$: \begin{align*} \int_{\Omega} f_X (x) \ dx = \int_0^1 2x \ dx = \frac{2x^2}{2} \Bigg|_0^1 = x^2 \Bigg|_0^1 = 1, \end{align*} which is exactly right and the PDF is valid.