I'm asked to explain why the proof of the following theorem is incorrect.
Incorrect theorem:
$\exists x \in \mathbb R\forall y \in \mathbb R (xy^2 = y -x )$
Proof:
Let $x = \frac{y}{y^2 +1}$, then $y - x = y - \frac{y}{y^2 +1} = \frac{y^3}{y^2 +1} = \frac{y}{y^2 +1} \cdot y^2 = xy^2$
My attempt:
Theorem asserts that there is some $x$ for which $xy^2 = y -x $ holds no matter what value of $y$ is. Thus to prove the theorem, we need to define $x$ in terms of some constant. In other words, proof should go like this:
Suppose x = $a$ (where $a$ is some real number)
....Proof of the $xy^2 = y - x $ goes here....
Therefore, we showed that if $x=a$ then $xy^2 = y - x $
However, in the proof above $x$ has been defined in terms of $y$, where $y$ is variable. In other words, value of $x$ will change as $y$ changes. Therefore, proof didn't show that $\exists x \in \mathbb R\forall y \in \mathbb R (xy^2 = y -x )$
Is the explanation correct?
Yes, your explanation is correct. The reason that the proof is incorrect is that the value of $x$ is stipulated before the value of $y$ is, so $x$ cannot be taken to depend on $y$. If you have to prove that the theorem is incorrect, you can try to prove the negation of the theorem is correct. The negation would be: $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}, \exists y \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25em} \text{such that} \hspace{0.25em} xy^{2} \not = y - x$. Given an $x$, just choose $y = 1$ (other values work too), and you have $x \not = 1 - x$, which is true.