The given problem is:
An ordinary deck of cards is dealt to four people: Joe, Bob, Jim, and Larry. If Larry has exactly one ace, what is the probability that Jim has all the remaining aces?
My solution: $\frac{\binom{4}{1}\binom{51}{12}\binom{36}{10}\binom{26}{13}}{\binom{52}{13}\binom{39}{13}\binom{26}{13}}$
This equates to $\frac{22}{703}$, which is apparently the right answer. However, is the solution right? It made so much sense to me when I was answering it, but now that I take a better look, it seems like the $\binom{51}{12}$ in the numerator should be replaced by $\binom{48}{12}$, since it's like setting aside $4$ of the aces, which means that there are $48$ cards left to choose from.
My solution looks weird. If it's wrong, please tell me it's wrong. If it's right, please explain why because I don't understand my own thoughts and need to be saved from them.
I think your answer $\frac{\binom{4}{1}\binom{51}{12}\binom{36}{10}\binom{26}{13}}{\binom{52}{13}\binom{39}{13}\binom{26}{13}}$ is wrong but you got the right result, by chance.
It looks like you've selected any of the $4$ aces, then $12$ other cards among the remaining $51$ for Larry.
Then, you gave the $3$ aces to Jim along with $10$ other cards among $36$.
After that, you gave $13$ cards among $26$ to any of the other players.
And you forgot to give the remaining $13$ cards to the last player.
In any case, this problem is equivalent to give $10$ cards among $36$ and $3$ aces to Jim, which is equivalent to $$\frac{\binom{36}{10}}{\binom{39}{13}}=\frac{22}{703}$$