Given a general compact Riemann manifold $(M,g)$, we have the well-known Hodge decomposition $$ \Omega^*(M)\cong d\Omega^*(M) \oplus \delta\Omega^*(M)\oplus \mathcal H_{\Delta}(M) $$ where $\delta$ is the dual of $d$ with respect to the metric and $\mathcal H_{\Delta}(M)$ is the solution space of Laplacian equation $\Delta\alpha=0$, i.e. the space of harmonic forms.
Question: So far, I can only theoretically understand this decomposition. That is, we know the existence of such decomposition, but I was wondering if we can get some intuition about it by finding some explicit decomposition.
Now, we equip the torus $T^2$ with the flat metric $g$ induced from $\mathbb R^2\to \mathbb R^2/\mathbb Z^2\equiv T^2$. Let $\alpha= f(x_1,x_2)dx_1+g(x_1,x_2)dx_2$ be an arbitrary one-form. Can we write down explicitly the Hodge decomposition of $\alpha$ with respect to the flat metric?
Let $\sigma_1 = S^1\times \{0\}$ and $\sigma_2 = \{0\}\times S^1$ be the canonical basis for $H_1(T^2)$. As you did, I will use $dx_i$ for the basis $1$-forms on $T^2$ (since these forms on $\Bbb R^2$ are $\Bbb Z^2$-invariant and thus descend to closed forms on $T^2$). We have $\int_{\sigma_i}dx_j = \delta_{ij}$. Any harmonic $1$-form is of the form $c_1\,dx_1+c_2\,dx_2$ for some constants $c_1,c_2$.
Suppose we write the decomposition as $$\alpha = d\psi + \delta(\star\rho) + (c_1\,dx_1+c_2\,dx_2) \quad\text{for smooth functions } \psi \text{ and } \rho \text{ and appropriate constants } c_i.$$ Taking $d$ of this equation, we see that $$d\alpha = d\delta(\star\rho) = d(-\!\star\!d\!\star\!(\star\rho)) = -d\!\star\!d\rho,$$ and so $\rho$ is obtained by solving $\Delta\rho = \star d\alpha$. (Here I'm taking $\Delta = -\!\star\!\,d\star{}d$.) By our construction, the $1$-form $\tilde\alpha = \alpha - \delta(\star\rho)$ is now closed, and there is a unique harmonic form in the cohomology class of $\tilde\alpha$. In particular, take $c_1 = \int_{\sigma_1}\tilde\alpha$ and $c_2 = \int_{\sigma_2}\tilde\alpha$.
Why, then, is $\beta=\tilde\alpha - (c_1\,dx_1+c_2\,dx_2)$ exact? This is standard multivariable calculus. Since $\int_{\sigma_i}\beta = 0$ for $i=1,2$, we can define $\psi$ by integrating. That is, set $$\psi(x,y) = \int_{(0,0)}^{(x,y)}\beta,$$ and this is a well-defined smooth function on the torus with $d\psi = \beta$.
Perhaps a concrete example would be nice. Let's take $\alpha = \cos^2(\pi x_1)dx_1 + \sin(\pi x_1)dx_2$. This form is neither closed nor co-closed. If you follow my algorithm, we want $\rho$ with $\Delta\rho = \star d\alpha = \pi\cos(\pi x_1)$. For example, we can take $\rho(x_1,x_2) = \frac1{\pi}\cos(\pi x_1)$. We then have $\tilde\alpha = \cos^2(\pi x_1)dx_1 + \sin(\pi x_1)dx_2 + \star(d\rho) = \cos^2(\pi x_1)dx_1$. Then $c_1 = 1/2$ and $c_2=0$ determine the harmonic piece, and $\tilde\alpha - \frac12 dx_1 = d\big(\frac1{4\pi}\sin(2\pi x)\big)$, as desired.