Do we take $1-\sin x$ as $(\sin \frac{x}{2}-\cos \frac{x}{2})^2$ or $(\cos \frac{x}{2}-\sin \frac{x}{2})^2$. My teacher says that in most of the cases we take the latter. In one problem the interval was specified as something like $(\frac{\pi}{2},\pi)$ and my teacher told me to take the former. I am facing problem in understanding this. Can someone shed some light on this? Also what about $1+\sin x$.
Both the expressions may be the same but they yield different results (in differentiation and integration problems) and I have myself seen this.
Those expressions are equal so... Both. Regarding the last question, plug $x \mapsto -x$ and you'll have an almost equal expression.