Let all varieties be projective over $\Bbb{C}$.
It is well-known that a rational from a smooth curve to another curve extends into a morphism. My question is about a concrete example of this fact.
Take $C:y^2z=x^3-xz^2$ on $\Bbb{P}^2$ and $P=(0:0:1)$ (or some smooth cubic and a point on it). Define the rational map \begin{align*} \phi:\Bbb{P}^2&\dashrightarrow\Bbb{P}^1\\ (x:y:z)&\mapsto(x:y) \end{align*}
The map is defined everywhere except at $P$. Now let $\psi:=\phi|_C:C\dashrightarrow\Bbb{P}^1$. Since $C$ is smooth, then $\psi$ extends into a morphism $\psi:C\to\Bbb{P}^1$.
My question is: how can we define $\psi(P)$?
I've tried a geometric interpretation, namely, if $L:sx+ty=0$ is any line through $P$, then $(x:y)=(-t:s)$, so the preimage $\psi^{-1}(-t:s)$ should consist (it seems to me) of $L\cap C$, which has three points counted with multiplicity, including $P$.
But by this interpretation, $P$ should be in the preimage of every point in $\Bbb{P}^1$, so it looks like I'm in the wrong path.
Note that $$\begin{align}(x:y) &= (x(x^2-z^2):y(x^2-z^2)) \\&= (y^2 z : y(x^2 -z^2)) \\ &= (yz : x^2 -z^2)\end{align}$$ on the open subset of $C$ where $x^2 \neq z^2$ and $y\neq 0$. Since the rational $C \dashrightarrow \mathbb{P}^1, (x:y:z)\mapsto (yz:x^2 -z^2)$ is defined at $P$ and agrees with the original rational map on an open subset of $C$, we can glue these together to get an actual map $C\to \mathbb{P}^1$, which will necessarily agree with $\psi$. In particular, we find $\psi(P) = (0:1)$.