In various textbooks and lecture notes on algebraic number theory, I have found the following claim without proof:
Let $R$ be a Dedekind domain with field of fractions $F$ and let $S$ be its integral closure in some finite separable extension $E/F$. If $\mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal in $R$, then $\mathfrak{p}S$ has a prime factorization in $S$.
My problem is here that the authors seem to assume implicitly that $\mathfrak{p}S$ is a proper ideal in $S$. (Otherwise, I think the claim is false.) Up to now, I have never seen a proof that $\mathfrak{p}S$ is indeed proper in $S$. So, why is this true? For me, this is not obvious.
$\textbf{Edit:}$ To clarify the references, I have found this claim for example in the lecture notes "Algebraic Number Theory" by John Milne, ch. 3, section "Factorization in extensions" (see here: http://www.jmilne.org/math/CourseNotes/ANT.pdf).
If $\mathfrak p S=S$, then $\mathfrak p S_\mathfrak p=S_\mathfrak p$, and, as $S_\mathfrak p$ is a finitely generated $R_\mathfrak p$-module, there results by Nakayama's lemma that $S_\mathfrak p=0$, which contradicts the fact that $R_\mathfrak p\to S_\mathfrak p$ is injective.