I want to solve the variational problem $$ J[y] = \int_{0}^1 (y'(x))^2 dx $$ with the conditions $y(0)=0, y(1)=1$ and $\int_{0}^{1}y(x)dx = 0$.
Using Euler's condition (for an extremal): $$ \frac{\partial F}{\partial y}- \frac{\partial^2 F}{ \partial x \partial y'}- \frac{\partial ^2 F}{\partial y \partial y'} -y'' \frac{\partial^2 F}{\partial y'^2} =0. $$
This will give: $ y'' \frac{\partial ^2 F}{\partial y}=0 $
If $y''=0$ then the solution is of the form $Ax+B$, which can not be the case here. After this point I am unable to solve the problem.
Can you please help me understand what am I doing wrong. Any help is highly appreciated.
Consider the lagrangian
$$ \int_0^1(\dot y)^2dt +\lambda\int_0^1 y dt $$
then from Euler-Lagrange
$$ 2\ddot y -\lambda = 0 $$
and solving with boundary conditions
$$ y = \frac 14(4t-\lambda t+\lambda t^2) $$
The solution should satisfy the restriction so
$$ \int_0^1 ydt = \frac 12-\frac{\lambda}{24}=0\Rightarrow \lambda = 12 $$
and the solution is
$$ y = 3t^2-2 t $$