If $ f $ is Lebesgue integrable then $|f|$ is Lebesgue integrable but does the converse of the result is also true?
2026-05-05 08:33:25.1777970005
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$|f| $ is Lebesgue integrable , does it implies $f$ is also?
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No, it does not: If $E$ is (bounded and) non-measurable, then $f = 2\chi_{E} - 1$ is everywhere equal to $\pm1$, so $|f| \equiv 1$, but $f$ is non-measurable, hence not integrable.
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Think of |f| as a division of f into two functions: $f_+$ and $f_-$.
$f_+$ we define as equal to f on the domain {x: f(x) is non-negative}, and 0 on all other x.
$f_-$ we define as equal to -f on the domain {x: f(x) is negative} and 0 elsewhere. $|f|=f_+ + f_-$.
If |f| is finite, then necessarily both $f_+$ and $f_-$ are finite.
Assume $f$ to be measurable.
$f$ is bounded by $|f|$ and so it is $L^1$, and hence Lebesgue integrable.
On the other hand, $f$ is lebesgue iff $\int_{X}f^+ \, d\mu<\infty$ and $\int_{X}f^- \, d\mu<\infty$, but we know that $|f|=|f^+ + f^-| \leq |f^+|+|f^-|$ and so $|f|$ is integrable if $|f|$ is.