I want to show that $f:S^1\to S^1$ is homotopic to the constant map if and only if $f_*:\pi_1(S^1,x_0)\to \pi_1(S^1,x)$ , $f_*([\gamma])=0$ This seems like it should be an obvious fact but I am having trouble with details.
One direction is obvious. That is, since $f\sim g\implies f_*=g_*$, if I assume $f\sim c$ for $c$ constant map, then $f_*=c_*=0$.
The other direction is suppose $f_*=c_*$ for constant function $c$. I want to show that $f\sim c$.
If $f$ omits any point of $S^1$, the image of $f$ is contractible. In particular, if $f$ is constant, $f(S^1)$ is contractible and $f_*$ is the trivial map.
The other direction is false. Let $S^1$ be represented by the set $\{(x,y) \in \Bbb{R}^2 \mid x^2 + y^2 = 1\}$. Let $f(x,y) = (|x|,y)$ and $x_0 = (1,0)$. Then $f$ is continuous, nonconstant, and maps every element of $\pi_1(S^1,x_0)$ into a contractible set, the right semicircle, so $f_*([\gamma]) = 0$ for all $[\gamma] \in \pi_1(S^1,x_0)$.
(If one thinks a covering space argument might work... Consider $f(\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\hat{\theta}}) = \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\arctan(\hat{\theta})}$, where now $\hat{\theta}$ ranges over $\Bbb{R}$ and every $2\pi$ the point is on a different sheet of the covering. This maps the entire covering space to the same semicircle.)