$f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is continuous and $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)dx$ exists could any one tell me which of the following statements are correct?
$1. \text{if } \lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) \text{ exists, then it is 0}$
$2. \lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) \text{ must exists, and it is 0}$
$3. \text{ in case if f is non negative } \lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) \text{ exists, and it is 0}$
$4. \text{ in case if f is differentiable } \lim_{x\to\infty} f'(x) \text{ exists, and it is 0}$
I solved one problem in past which says: if $f$ is uniformly continuos and $\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)dx$ exists then $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=0$, so the condition in one says $f$ is uniformly continuous? and hence $1$ is true? well I have no idea about the other statements. will be pleased for your help.
The point is that the limit need not exist. You can construct something according to the comment by J.J. For instance, you can consider a function such that at any integer the height is one but the width is $1/n^2$. Then the area of each rectangle is $1/n^2$ and
$$ \int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\sum\frac{1}{n^2}<\infty. $$
But the limit does not exists. You get
$$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} f(n)=1, $$
$$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} f(n-\delta)=0,\;\; 0<\delta<<1 $$
Thus, 1 is true. If the limit exists, it should be zero (if it isn't then the function can't be integrable, right?). 2 is not true (see the hint by J.J. and the first part of my answer above). I think that 3, 4 are not true due to the same reason.
Edit: To prove that 4 is not true you can construct a (more decaying) example and then integrate it.