How can I solve for $f(t)$ given $f(t) = te^t + \int_0^t \tau f(t-\tau)d\tau$
I began by taking the laplace transform of all the terms to get $$F(s) = \frac{1}{(s-1)^2} + \frac{F(s)}{s^2}$$ I am stuck on what to do when I solve for $$F(s) = \frac{1}{(s-1)^2}\cdot \frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{s^2}}$$ Any help would be appreciated.
I don't know whether you are still looking for an answer, but here is a perhaps longer but easier alternative approach, which makes use of series expansion instead of Laplace transform.
Firstly, let's recall that the solution can be Taylor expanded (around zero) as $f(t) = \displaystyle \sum_{n\ge0} f^{(n)}(0)\frac{t^n}{n!}$, where $f^{(n)}$ denotes the $n^\mathrm{th}$ derivative. It is easy to check by differentiating the original equation that the latter satisfies $$ f^{(n)}(t) = te^t + \int_0^t \tau f^{(n)}(t-\tau) \,\mathrm{d}\tau + ne^t + tf^{(n-1)}(0) + f^{(n-2)}(0), $$ hence the simple inhomogeneous first-order linear recurrence relation $f^{(n)}(0) = f^{(n-2)}(0) + n$, which is solved by $f^{(n)}(0) = A + B(-1)^n + \frac{1}{4}n^2 + \frac{1}{2}n - \frac{3}{8}$, where $A$ and $B$ are constants to be determined thanks to the the initial conditions $f(0) = 0$ and $f'(0) = 1$.
Finally, plugging this expression into the Taylor series will lead to a solution made of exponentials with polynomial prefactors, such as gpmath's inverse Laplace transform in the comment section.