If any number $\mod 1$ is zero, then how can $f(x) = 2x \mod 1$ be a Baker's map? For any $x\in \mathbb{R}$, shouldn't $f(x)=0$?
2026-03-27 10:16:48.1774606608
$f(x) = 2x \mod 1$ not equal to zero for all $x$?
387 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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