show that $f(x) (\in \Bbb Z[x])$ is irreducible and primitive over $\Bbb Q$, then $f(x)$ is irreducible over $\Bbb Z$.
How pf it?
I tried it.
MY pf)
Suppose that $f(x)$ is reducible over $\Bbb Z$.
then, $f(x)=Q(x)L(x)$ for some $Q(x),L(x) \in \Bbb Z[x]$ .
since $f(x)$ is primitive, $c(f(x))=1$.
Let $c(Q(x))= a$, $c(L(x))=b$. ($a,b$ is constant)
then $f(x)=aQ'(x)bL'(x)$. (Note $Q(x)=aQ'(x)$ , L(x)=bL'(x))
=> ${1\over ab}f(x)=Q'(x)L'(x)$.
by gauss theorem,
=> ${1\over ab}=1$ (since the product of primitive polynomial is also primitive)
so, $ab=1$ => $a=b=1$ or $a=b=-1$.
$f(x)=Q(x)L(x)$ is reducible over $\Bbb Z$ and $Q(x),L(x)$ are primitive.
it means that $f(x)$ is also reducible over $\Bbb Q$.
-contradiction-
is it all right? I know my pf is insufficient....plz edit! thanks :D
Since $f(x)$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$, it must be irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$. Recall the idea of field extensions and this should be immediately clear.