When factoring $x^3 - 2x^2 - 4x - 8$ the result you get is $(x-2)(x^2 - 4)$ or $(x-2)^2 (x+2)$ , meaning that the mentioned polynomial is divisible by each of these factors. When using the Bezout's identity regarding factoring polynomials backwards and plugging values ±2 into the polynomial, the result is never zero. Then how is it possible for it to be divisible with both $(x-2)$ and $(x+2)$?
Thanks in advance.
I made a mistake while pulling out factors. The answer is: Bezout's identity works only when a polynomial has real number roots.