Prove $\frac{F(n+1)}{F(n)}$ converges to $\phi$ without assuming a priori that it converges
If I know it converges, then I know it converges to $\phi$
Since, if $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{F(n+1)}{F(n)} \to r$ then,
$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{F(n+1)}{F(n)} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{F(n)+F(n-1)}{F(n)} = 1+\frac{1}{r} = r \to r=\phi$
But how do I know $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{F(n+1)}{F(n)}$ converges in the first place?
Let $\phi, \varphi$ be the positive & negative solutions, respectively, of $$x^2 = x + 1$$ So $$\phi + \varphi = 1$$ and $$\phi\varphi = -1$$ That is, $$\varphi = 1 - \phi = -\phi^{-1}$$ So $$\phi, \varphi = \frac{1\pm\sqrt5}2$$ That is, $$\phi\approx 1.6180339$$ and $$\varphi\approx -0.6180339$$ Also, $$\phi - \varphi = \sqrt5$$
Now, for any $n$, $$x^{n+1} = x^n + x^{n-1}$$ and so with a simple induction we can construct a Fibonacci sequence of powers of $x$, as this table shows:
Thus $$\phi^n = F_n\phi+ F_{n-1}$$ and $$\varphi^n = F_n\varphi+ F_{n-1}$$ We can easily use these results to derive the Binet formula, but we don't need that here.
$$\varphi^n= F_n\varphi+ F_{n-1}$$ $$(-1)^n\phi^{-n} = F_n(1 - \phi) + F_{n-1}$$ $$\frac{(-1)^n}{\phi^n} = F_{n+1} - \phi F_n$$ $$\frac{F_{n+1}}{F_n} = \phi + \frac{(-1)^n}{F_n\phi^n}$$
Clearly, the RHS converges to $\phi$.