One version of the Final Value Theorem often seen in controls textbooks:
Suppose $f(t)$ has (one-sided) Laplace Transform $F(s)$ and further suppose that every pole of $s F(s)$ is in the open left-half plane. Then the limit $\lim_{s\to 0} s F(s)$ exists, and $\lim_{t\to\infty} f(t) = \lim_{s\to 0} s F(s)$.
Critically, there is no a priori explicit assumption that the limit $\lim_{t\to\infty} f(t)$ exists; it follows as a consequence of the assumptions made on $s F(s)$.
The standard proof uses partial fraction decomposition, which requires assuming $F(s)$ is a rational function. Is there a more general version of this result that can handle the cases where:
- $F(s)$ may have infinitely many poles
- $F(s)$ may not be rational
I want to preserve the property that no assumptions are made about $f(t)$ or its limiting behavior.
I suspect the result should still hold if we replace "every pole of $sF(s)$ is in the open left-half plane" with something like "there exists $\varepsilon > 0$ such that $sF(s)$ is analytic in the set of $s$ satisfying $\mathrm{Re}(s)>-\varepsilon$". Has anybody seen such a result or have ideas on how to prove such a thing?
It sounds like you are looking for the generalized final value theorem. You may want to check the paper (and their references):
Chen, Jie, et al. "The final value theorem revisited-Infinite limits and irrational functions." IEEE Control Systems Magazine 27.3 (2007): 97-99.
They discuss a generalized final value theorem that also works for irrational functions:
$$ \lim_{t\rightarrow \infty}\frac{f(t)}{t^{\lambda}}=\frac{1}{\Gamma(\lambda+1)}\lim_{s\downarrow 0}s^{\lambda+1}F(s) $$
with $f(t)$ Laplace transformable, $\lambda>-1$, both limits exist, $\Gamma$ is the gamma function and $s\downarrow 0$ means "that $s$ approaches $0$ through the positive numbers".
For $\lambda=0$ this is just the normal final value theorem.