How do you prove that the following statement is incorrect:
If $h \circ f = f \circ k$, then $h = k$
When using the following guides:
- Use a set with two elements
- With three endomaps for $f$, $h$, and $k$
- Where $f$ is invertible
I can prove the statement false (without the guides above) with the following scenario:
- $A = \{x, y, z\}$
- $f$ is a constant map to $x$
- $h$ maps $x$ to $x$, and the others to $z$
- $k$ is a constant map to $z$
In this scenario:
- $h \circ f$ is a constant map $x$
- $f \circ k$ is also a constant map $x$
- but $h ≠ k$
However the book I am following (Conceptual Mathematics: A First Introduction to Categories) specifically asks for a two element set with three endomaps.
Thanks for you help!
Let $A=\{1,2\}$, $f(1)=2,f(2)=1$, $h(1)=h(2)=1$ and $k(1)=k(2)=2$. Then $h\circ f=h$ and $f\circ k=h$ but $h\not=k$.