I would like to get more hints to the following question.
Find $f\in L^2(0,1)$ with $\int_0^1 xf(x)dx = \langle x, f(x)\rangle = 1$ of minimal norm (with the standard norm in $L^2(0,1)$). I figured that I need to do something with orthogonality, but I have no Idea how to proceed.
I think I should decompose the space $M = \{g\in L^2(0,1)| \int_0^1 xg(x)dx= 1\}$ in a direct sum, such that $M = G\oplus G^{\perp}$. Furthermore, I could imagine this space $M$ as a hyperplane with $G^{\perp}$ sticking out and which holds the solution. So maybe I need to do something with the an inproduct being zero and maybe something with translations.
Question: is that even remotely correct and if so, how could I tie that together?
Thank you for your time.
This is in the first place a problem of linear algebra: You are given a vector $a\ne0$ in a certain inner product space, and ask for the shortest vector $f$ satisfying $$\langle f,a\rangle=1\ .$$ Now the general vector $f$ satisfying this condition has the form $$f={a\over\|a\|^2}+ v,\qquad v\perp a,$$ and the shortest of these $f$ is obviously the vector $$f_0:={a\over\|a\|^2}\ .$$ In the problem at hand the given vector is the function $a: \ x\mapsto x$ $(0\leq x\leq1)$ having $\|a\|^2={1\over3}$. It follows that the solution to your problem is the function $$f_0(x):=3x\ .$$