Find $\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}$ if $xy+yz+zx = 1$
I don't understand this question at first. It looks like $x,y,z $ are dependent. So we proceed differentiation partially wrt x:
$$xy_x +y + y_x z + z_x y + z_x x+z=0$$
This gives $$z_x = \frac{-z-y-y_xz-xy_x}{x+y}$$
But given answer is $\frac{-z-y}{x+y}$, meaning that they take $y_x = 0$, saying that $y$ and $x$ independent. But how this makes sense, then why not take $z$ and $x$ also dependent and say $z_x = 0$ ?
Please tell me the reasoning! I think that they mean to say treat $y$ as constant when finding $z_x$
You should understand the definition of the partial derivative.
$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}$ implies "the partial derivative of $z$ with respect to $x$, with other variables held constant.
Hence (holding $y$ as constant, implying its derivative is zero): $$xy_x +y + y_x z + z_x y + z_x x+z=0 \iff \\ x\cdot 0+y+0\cdot z+z_xy+z_xx+z=0 \iff \\ z_x=\frac{-y-z}{x+y}.$$