Suppose the functions $F(x)$ and $G(x)$ satisfying $$F(x)=f(x)-\frac{1}{f(x)}$$ $$G(x)=f(x)+\frac{1}{f(x)}$$ such that $F'(x)=(G\circ G)(x)$, with initial condition $f(\frac{\pi}{4})=1$ is given. Find $f(x)$.
I have attempted $F(x)+G(x)=2f(x)$, and try to relate functions $F(x)$ and $G(x)$, but stuck in the composite function $(G\circ G)(x)$. Taking integration for $F'(x)$ and $(G\circ G)(x)$ on both sides with respect to $x$ or $F(x)$ do not help that much. Any clue?
Assuming $G^2(x)=(G(x))^2,$ that is, ordinary multiplication, which was the original question's notation, we have that \begin{align*} F'&=f'-\frac{-f'}{f^2}=\frac{f'(1+f^2)}{f^2}, \; \text{and} \\ G^2&=f^2+2+\frac{1}{f^2}. \end{align*} Then $$\frac{f'(1+f^2)}{f^2}=f^2+2+\frac{1}{f^2},$$ or $$f'(1+f^2)=f^4+2f^2+1=(1+f^2)^2;$$ and therefore $$f'=1+f^2,$$ which is separable.