Let $(Y, \langle .,. \rangle )$ be an inner product space with $Y=C[0,1]$ and $$\langle f,g \rangle = \int_0^1 f(x)g(x)dx$$
In $C[0,1]$, let $f(t) =t$, and find $g \in f^{\perp}$ such that $g(0) = 5$.
Am I right in saying $f^{\perp}= \{ g \in Y:g \perp f \}$?
So we need to find $g$ so that $ \langle f,g \rangle =0$. If we have $g(t)=0$ when $t=1$ and $g(t)=5$ when $0 \le t <1$, and $f(t)=1$ then would that work?
Because then $f(t)g(t)=0$ when $t=1$ and $f(t)g(t)=5t$ (this is the part I am unsure about) when $0 \le t <1$.
Then let the integral of $f(t)g(t)$ be $F(t)$. Then $F(t)=0$ when $t=1$ and $F(t)=5t^2/2$ when $0 \le t <1$. So then find $F(1)-F(0)=0- 5(0)^2/2=0$?
The candidate function $g$ you mention is not continuous, i.e., not in $C[0, 1]$.
One simple approach is the following: Choose a simple $1$-parameter family of functions $g$ satisfying the given condition $g(0) = 5$, compute $\langle f, g \rangle$, and then find a parameter value (if one exists) such that the inner product is $0$.