Consider $$f(x)=\frac{x^2+x^3+x^4}{(x+x^2+x^3)^{3/2}}.$$ Aim: Write $f(x) = g(x) + \mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x\downarrow0$.
I can change the fraction to $$f(x)=\frac{x^{1/2}+x^{3/2}+x^{5/2}}{(1+x+x^2)^{3/2}}.$$ I can now use the Taylor approximation $\frac{1}{(1+y)^{3/2}}=1-ay+by^2\mp...$ and set $y=x+x^2$. Multiplying the numerator with the Taylor approximation gives \begin{align} f(x)&=\left(x^{1/2}+x^{3/2}+x^{5/2}\right)\left(1-a(x+x^2)+b(x+x^2)^2\mp...\right) \\ &= \sqrt{x}+\mathcal{O}(x). \end{align}
Question: Is my approach correct and can I get there without a Taylor approximation?
To show $f(x) = x^{1/2} + O(x)$, it suffices to show $\left|\frac{f(x)-x^{1/2}}{x}\right| \le C$ for sufficiently small $x$.
$$\frac{f(x)-x^{1/2}}{x} = \frac{x^{1/2} + x^{3/2} + x^{5/2} - x^{1/2} - x^{4/2} - x^{7/2} }{x(1+x+x^2)^{3/2}} = \frac{x^{1/2} + x^{3/2} - x - x^{5/2}}{(1+x+x^2)^{3/2}} \overset{x \downarrow 0}{\longrightarrow} 0.$$
I think you can actually show the stronger statement that $f(x) = x^{1/2} + O(x^{3/2})$, which would imply $f(x) = x^{1/2} + O(x)$.