I want to prove $\sum_{i=0}^{r} \sum_{j=0}^{c} \binom{i+j}{j}=\binom{r+c+2}{c+1}-1$, but the result is different. What is wrong?
$$\begin{align} &\sum_{i=0}^{r} \sum_{j=0}^{c} \binom{i+j}{j}\\ =&\sum_{i=0}^{r} \sum_{j=0}^{c} [x^j]\frac{1}{(1-x)^{i-1}} \\ =&\sum_{j=0}^{c} [x^{j}] \frac{1-\frac{1}{(1-x)^{r}}}{x} \\ =&[x^{c}] \frac{\frac{1}{1-x}-\frac{1}{(1-x)^{r+1}}}{x} \\ =&\binom{r+c+2}{c+1}\\ \end{align}$$
If a proof using coefficient extractors is desired we may proceed as follows:
$$\sum_{p=0}^n \sum_{q=0}^m {p+q\choose q} = \sum_{p=0}^n \sum_{q\ge 0} {p+q\choose q} [[0\le q\le m]] \\ = \sum_{p=0}^n \sum_{q\ge 0} {p+q\choose q} [z^m] \frac{z^q}{1-z} = [z^m] \frac{1}{1-z} \sum_{p=0}^n \sum_{q\ge 0} {p+q\choose q} z^q \\ = [z^m] \frac{1}{1-z} \sum_{p=0}^n \frac{1}{(1-z)^{p+1}} = [z^m] \frac{1}{(1-z)^2} \sum_{p=0}^n \frac{1}{(1-z)^{p}} \\ = [z^m] \frac{1}{(1-z)^2} \frac{1/(1-z)^{n+1}-1}{1/(1-z)-1} = [z^m] \frac{1}{1-z} \frac{1/(1-z)^{n+1}-1}{z} \\ = [z^{m+1}] \frac{1}{1-z} (1/(1-z)^{n+1}-1) = -1 + [z^{m+1}] \frac{1}{(1-z)^{n+2}} \\ = -1 + {m+1+n+1\choose n+1}.$$
This is
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #00A000]{ -1 + {m+n+2\choose n+1}}$$
as claimed.