My approach :-
I first assumed all balls to be similar in nature , so that would give me 5 ways to distribute the balls in the boxes , which will be
2 1 1 1 1
1 2 1 1 1
1 1 2 1 1
1 1 1 2 1
1 1 1 1 2
basically that would be whole number solutions of a+b+c+d+e = 6 where all a,b,c,d,e >=1
Now since all the balls are distinct in nature I multiplied the 5 ways with 6! = giving me a total of 3600 ways , but the answer is given as 1800 ways , where am I going wrong ?
You have 5 possibilities to pick the box in which you want to have 2 balls. For this box, you have to pick 2 out of the 6 balls, so there are $6 \choose 2$ ways of doing that. Then you still have 4 balls and 4 boxes remaining, so the number of ways to place the remaining 4 balls amounts to $4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 = 4!$
Hence the total number of ways should be $$ N = 5 \cdot {6 \choose 2} \cdot 4! = 1800$$