Let $f(z)= \dfrac{z}{ (1-e^{z} ) \sin z}$ then the poles of $f$ at $z=2πik$ where $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ $k \neq 0$are of order $1$ or $2$?
\begin{align} \lim_{z \to 2πik} (z-2πik)^2 \dfrac{z}{ (1-e^{z}) \sin z } &= \lim_{z \to 2πik} \dfrac{z}{ \dfrac{1-e^{z}}{z-2πik} \dfrac{\sin z}{z-2πik}} \\ &= 2πik \neq 0 \end{align}
so it is a pole of order $2$ . Is it correct?
Here , $\forall k \in \mathbb Z$, $\quad e^z-1=0\implies e^z=1=e^{2k\pi i}\implies z=2k\pi i\quad$ are poles.
Now $\lim_{z \to 2k\pi i}(z-2k\pi i)f(z)$
$=\lim_{z \to 2k\pi i} \frac{z(z - 2k\pi i)}{(1-e^z)\sin z}$ $\quad (\frac{0}{0}\text{form})$
$=\lim_{z \to 2k\pi i}\frac{2z - 2k\pi i}{(1-e^z)\cos z -e^z \sin z}$, which gives a finite value.
$\implies z=2k\pi i$ is a simple pole.