Hi I am struggling with this exercise, which may be perceived as simple. so I was trying to write tangents as follows:
$$\tan(z)=-i\frac{e^{iz}-e^{-iz}}{e^{iz}+e^{-iz}}$$ and then $$z=a+bi$$, which led me to $$ \tan z=-i\frac{\cos a(e^{-b}-e^{b})+i\sin a(e^{-b}+e^{b})}{\cos a(e^{-b}+e^{b})+i\sin a(e^{-b}-e^{b})}$$, so I guess here I can multiply denominator by conjunction, but this is really a complicated computation on an exam... help appreciated
It is much easier to deal with this problem using the fact that$$1+\tan^2(z)=\dfrac1{\cos^2(z)}.$$So, which numbers can be written as $\dfrac1{\cos^2(z)}$? Answer: all, except $0$. It follows from this (and from the fact that $\tan$ is an odd function), that the range of $\tan$ is $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{\pm i\}$.