I have the following problem:
Find the solution of $af_x + f_y = 0$, where $a \not= -1$, and where the following values are taken
- $f = e^{-x^2}$ on the line $y = -x$.
- $f = 1$ on the line $y = -x$
For each of the above cases, what happens when $a = -1$?
My work is as follows:
i)
$$\frac{dx}{dt} = a, \frac{dy}{dt} = 1, \frac{df}{dt} = 0$$
$$\therefore x(t) = at + C_1(s), y(t) = t + C_2(s), f = e^{-x^2}$$
$$x(0) = C_1(s) = -s, y(0) = C_2(s) = 0$$
$$\therefore x(s, t) = at - s, y(s, t) = t$$
Testing transversality condition:
$$|J| = \begin{vmatrix} a& 1 \\ -1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} = 0 - (-1) = 1$$
Therefore, the transversality condition holds.
ii)
$$\frac{dx}{dt} = a, \frac{dy}{dt} = 1, \frac{df}{dt} = 0$$
$$\therefore x(t) = at + C_1(s), y(t) = t + C_2(s), f = 1$$
$$x(0) = C_1(s) = -s, y(0) = C_2(s) = 0$$
$$\therefore x(s, t) = at - s, y(s, t) = t$$
Testing transversality condition:
$$|J| = \begin{vmatrix} a& 1 \\ -1 & 0 \end{vmatrix} = 0 - (-1) = 1$$
Therefore, the transversality condition holds.
As can be seen, I'm confused as to how I should be solving such problems, as well as how the differences in $f$ affect these two problems and each of their solutions.
I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to demonstrate how these problems are solved, with explanations/reasoning for the steps of the solution.
Let $u:=ax+y$ and $v:=x-ay$. Then, $u$ and $v$ are independent variables (by showing that $\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial v}=0$ and $\dfrac{\partial v}{\partial u}=0$) such that $$x=\frac{au+v}{a^2+1}\text{ and }y=\frac{u-av}{a^2+1}\,.$$ Note that $$\frac{\partial}{\partial u}=\left(\frac{\partial x}{\partial u}\right)\,\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial u}\right)\,\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\right)=\frac{1}{a^2+1}\,\Biggl(a\,\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\right)\Biggr)\,.$$ Thus, if we write $F(u,v):=f\left(\frac{au+v}{a^2+1},\frac{u-av}{a^2+1}\right)=f(x,y)$, then the equation $$a\,\left(\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}\,f(x,y)\right)+\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\,f(x,y)\right)=0$$ is equivalent to $$\frac{\partial }{\partial u}\,F(u,v)=0\,.$$ That is, $F(u,v)=g(v)$ for some function $g$. Consequently, $$f(x,y)=g(x-ay)\text{ for all }x,y\,.$$