I am asking to find the volume of the volume trap above the cone $z=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}$ and below the sphere $x^2+y^2+z^2=2$
When I checked the solution I noticed that it was writen as $$V=\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \int_{0}^{\sqrt{2}} r^{2} \sin \theta \,d r \,d \theta \,d \varphi$$ and my question is why the boundries of $\theta$ is between $0$ to $\frac{\pi}{4}$ and not $0$ to $\pi$.
why $0$ to $\pi$ is wrong? I just can't imagine the scenerio in my head
as you can see the $\theta$ axis it's just going from 0 to $\frac{\pi}{4}$
We can also obtain this $\frac{\pi}{4}$ algebraically if our change of variable is:
$x =r\sin(\theta)\cos(\varphi)$
$y =r\sin(\theta)\sin(\varphi)$
$z=r\cos(\theta)$
we will obtain $z=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\Rightarrow r\cos(\theta)=r\sin(\theta)\Rightarrow \tan(\theta)=1\Rightarrow\theta=\frac{\pi}{4}$
also can't be $2\pi$ because $\theta \in [0,\pi] $for more information: here