I have an infinite series such as $$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k!}{(b+1)(b+2)...(b+k)}$$
I need to find all values of $b$ so this converges. So far I've found that cannot be negative, since that would cause a zero term in the denominator at some point. Also $b\ne 0$ since then the $k'th$ term would be $1$ and the series would diverge. If we assume that $b$ is a natural number, then we can write $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k!}{\frac{1\cdot 2\cdot ...b(b+1)(b+2)...(b+k)}{1\cdot 2\cdot 3...\cdot b}} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k!}{\frac{(k+b)!}{b!}} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{b!\cdot k!}{(k+b)!} = b!\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac {1}{(k+1)(k+2)...(k+b)}$$ And that sum converges by comparison test when $b \gt 1$. But I have a feeling and WolframAlpha confirms that this converges for all numbers $b \gt 1$. How could I show that?
We have
$$\begin{align} a_k(b)&=\frac{k!}{(b+1)(b+2)\cdots (b+k)}\\\\ \end{align}$$
Applying Gauss's Test for series convergence reveals for $b>-1$
$$\frac{a_{k}(b)}{a_{k+1}(b)}=\frac{k+1+b}{k+1}=1+\frac{b}{k}+O\left(\frac1{k^2}\right)$$
whence we see that the series of interest converges when $b>1$ and diverges otherwise.
NOTE:
Gauss's Law can still be applied to the case $b<-1$, $-b\notin\mathbb{N}$, by factoring out the negative terms from the denominator and analyzing the series of the resulting positive summand.