I'm trying to find the $B_{nm}$ that satisfy: $$\sum_{m=0}^\infty \sum_{n=1}^\infty B_{nm}\sin(nx)\cos(my) = 1$$ for $0<x<\pi$ and $0<y<\pi$
Multiplying both sides by $\sin(n'x)\cos(m'y)$ and integrating, the LHS becomes:
$$ \\B_{nm}\int_0^\pi \sin(nx)\sin(n'x)dx\int_0^\pi \cos(my)\cos(m'y)dy =$$ $\frac{\pi^2}{4}B_{n'm'}\space$ for $\space m' \ne 0$
$\frac{\pi^2}{2}B_{n'0}\space$ for $\space m' = 0$
The RHS is: $$\int_0^\pi\sin(n'x)dx\int_0^\pi \cos(m'y)dy = 0$$ Therefore, $B_{nm} =0$
I can't think of another way to solve this problem. If I multiply through by $\sin(n'x)\sin(m'y)$ and integrate instead, I get:
$$ \\B_{nm}\int_0^\pi \sin(nx)\sin(n'x)dx\int_0^\pi \cos(my)\sin(m'y)dy =$$ $\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\pi n((-1)^{n+m}-1)}{2(m^2-n^2)}B_{n'm'}\space$
which seems impossible to isolate $B_{nm}$
Hint: Have another look at the $n'=1$ term on the right-hand side. And then look at the other odd-$n'$ terms.