Consider the trigonometric equation $\sin(x+\pi/6)=\sin(x+\pi)$
$\sin(x+\pi)$ can be reduced to $-\sin(x)$ which can further be written as $\sin(-x)$. Now the formula for general solution can be applied and all the general solutions can be obtained.
However,this can be approached yet another way but the result do not fits as the solution. What if we don't reduce $\sin(x+\pi)$ and apply the formula $\sin (x)=\sin(y) \to x=n\pi +(-1)^n y$ on the initial equation. I don't see any mathematical fallacy in the above argument yet the answers don't match.
Thanks in advance.
hint
If you apply the formula, you will get as solutions
$$x+\frac{\pi}{6}=n\pi+(-1)^n(x+\pi)$$
the solution exist only for odd $n$.