I am trying to answer this by Liouville's theorem but I am not sure if my solution is rigorous. I am given that $f$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb{C}$ so if I could show that $|f|$ was bounded then I would be done (since $f$ would be constant and so $f(z)=0$). But it is the bounded part that I am unsure about. My solution is the following:
Assume that $|f|$ is not bounded. That is, there exists some $z_0\in\mathbb{C}$ such that $|f(z)|\rightarrow \infty$ as $z\rightarrow z_0$. But if this were the case, then $f$ would not be continuous since $|f(z)|\rightarrow0$ as $|z|\rightarrow\infty$.
Is this ok? I feel as though the implication that $f$ would not be continuous should be better explained but I don't really know how to do that.
By the very definition of "$|f|\to 0$ as $|z|\to \infty$", for every $\epsilon>0$, there exists $M$ such $\bigl||f(z)|-0\bigr|<\epsilon$ for all $z$ with $|z|>M$. In particular, this works for $\epsilon=42$. Hence for such $M$, we know that $|f(z)|<42$ for all $|z|>M$; and on the compact disk of radius $M$, the continuous function $|f|$ is bounded as well.