Hi,
So I know for a basis to be orthonormal, the inner product needs to be 0 between components.
So the standard basis <1,t> would not work in this case, as the integral from 1 to zero of t is t^2/2
Can <0,t> be a basis for p1?
Thanks
2026-03-29 20:04:50.1774814690
Finding if the orthonormal basis of P1 with a given inner product
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