I have a follow up question to my question here: Finding $\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x}\; dx$ using definition
In this question I asked about $\int_{0}^1\frac{1}{x}\; dx$ and I think I understand how this integral is $\infty$.
I think the different integral $$ \int_1^2 \frac{1}{x}\;dx $$ is actually equal to a number. My question is how one can find this integral using the limit definition.
After working on this a bit, I get $$ \int_1^2 \frac{1}{x}\;dx = \lim_{n\to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{1+i/n}\frac{1}{n}\\ =\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{1+i/n}\\ =\lim_{n\to \infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{n+i} $$ So I need to find $$ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{n+i} $$ but I am not sure how I can do this. I get how you can find sums like $\sum i$, $\sum i^2$, and $\sum i^3$.
The better subdivision in terms of simplifying the Riemann sum is with a geometric series, set $x_k=q^k$ with $q^N=2$ then the Riemann sum with the left interval points is $$ \sum_{k=0}^{N-1}f(x_k)(x_{k+1}-x_k)=\sum_{k=0}^{N-1}\frac{q^k(q-1)}{q^k}=N(q-1)=N(\sqrt[N]2-1) $$ and it is a classical result that that limit is $\ln(2)$. You could consider it a difference quotient $$ \frac{e^{\ln(2)\cdot(1/N)}-e^0}{(1/N)-0} $$ with the obvious derivative as limit.