Let $n$ be an integer, $q(n)$ be the smallest prime number which divides $n$ and $r(n)$ be the biggest prime number less than or equal to $\sqrt{n}$. We say that $n$ is joker if $q(n)=r(n)$.
Except $8$, joker numbers are of the form $p_n\cdot p_{n+k}$, with $k\geq 0$. The converse is obviously false. If $(p_n)$ is the prime numbers sequence, it is easy to prove that a number of the form $p_n\cdot p_{n+k}$ is joker if and only if $p_{n+1}^2 > p_n\cdot p_{n+k}$. In particular, if a number is not joker for $k$, it is not joker for $k+1$ (with the same $n$). So, all the numbers of the form $p_n^2$ and $p_n\cdot p_{n+1}$ are jokers. Using a spreadsheet, we can see that for $n\leq 1000$, the percentage of numbers of the form $p_n\cdot p_{n+k}$ which are jokers, with $k=2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ and $7$ is respectively $52 \%, 19.2 \%, 7.8 \%, 2 \%, 0.5 \%$ and $0.1 \%$.
Question : for any $k$, does there exist $n$ such that the number $p_n\cdot p_{n+k}$ is joker ?
With PARI/GP, I could find examples upto $k=22$ , listed in the following output :
If the gap to the next prime is denoted with $a$ and the difference $p_{n+k}-p_n$ is denoted with $b$ , then $2a>b$ is sufficient for an example.
Considering that the merit of a prime gap defined as $$\frac{p_{n+1}-p_n}{\ln(p_n)}$$ can be arbitarily large, such a solution should exist for arbitarily large $k$ , but this is of course no proof.
Note that a solution immediately implies that there is a solution for all smaller $k$ as well. So, chances are very good that the answer to your question is "yes".