Let
$$x_n=\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right)^2\cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{6}\right)^2\cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{10}\right)^2\cdot\left(1-\frac{1}{15}\right)^2\cdots\left(1-\frac{1}{\frac{n(n+1)}{2}}\right)^2 \quad ,n\geq2 $$
then $\lim_ {n\to\infty} x_n$ is
(1) $\frac{1}{3}$
(2) $\frac{1}{9}$
(3) $\frac{1}{81}$
(4) 0
Your method is wrong: the series
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2}{n(n+1)} = 2\not\to +\infty,$$ therefore you can't conclude that $\ln x_n\to 0$.