Thanks for clarifications. Now i am posting the question in a different way.
Suppose a vector $V$ is orthogonal to vectors $X1$ and $X2$.
$X1$ and $X2$ are linearly independent.
Now if $V$ is also orthogonal to vectors $Y1$ and $Y2$ or in other words the dot product is zero, can we say the all vectors i.e., $X1\; X2 \;Y1 \;Y2$ are linearly dependent, since all vectors share the same orthoganal vectors.
Now let dot product of $V$ is nonzero with $Y3$, can we say $X1\; X2 \;Y3$ are linearly independent.
No.
$$X_1=(1,0,0)$$ $$X_2=(0,1,0)$$ $$Y_1=(-1,0,0)$$ $$Y_2=(0,-1,0)$$ $$V=(0,0,1)$$
Edit for the reposed question: Answer to the first part is still no. $$X_1=(1,0,0,0,0)$$ $$X_2=(0,1,0,0,0)$$ $$Y_1=(0,0,1,0,0)$$ $$Y_2=(0,0,0,1,0)$$ $$V=(0,0,0,0,1)$$ All vectors are linearly independent (and orthogonal).
As for $Y_3$, yes, we can say that it is linearly independent of $X_1$ and $X_2$. Put loosely, we know this because $Y_3$ is non-orthogonal to $V$, and any linear combination of $X_1$ and $X_2$ will be orthogonal to $V$ (since they themselves are orthogonal to $V$).