I want to find minimum of $f=x_1^p+\cdots+x_n^p$ ($p>1$) subject to $g=x_1+\cdots+x_n=1$.
By Lagrange's multiplier, if it has a local extremum at $P$, it should satisfy $\nabla f(P)=\lambda \nabla g(P)$. I solved it and got $x_1=\cdots =x_n=1/n$. So $P=(1/n,\cdots,1/n)$ is a candidate for a minimum. But I don't know how to prove that $f$ has actually minimum at $P$. How can I show it?
A simple method is to use the power mean inequality:
$$\sqrt[p]{\frac{x_1^p + \dots + x_n^p}{n}} \ge \frac{x_1 + \dots + x_n}{n} = \frac{1}{n},$$
with equality if and only if $x_1 = \dots = x_n$. This implies that the minimum is $n^{1-p}$.