I'm trying to work on finding eigenvectors. For the following matrix,
$$ \begin{bmatrix} b & 0 & -a \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \\ a & 0 & -b \\ \end{bmatrix} $$
I get the system $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{c} bx-az=0 \\ ax-bz=0 \end{array} \right. $$
which becomes $\frac{b}{a} = \frac{a}{b}$. Because it was part of a larger question, I know \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}
is a solution. But why?
Substituting $x=0, y=1, z=0$ into the equations,
\begin{align} b\cdot0-a\cdot0=0\\ a\cdot0-b\cdot0=0 \end{align}
we see that it fulfills the conditions. Hence it is a solution.
If you multiply that vector to the original matrix, we can see that it is in the nullspace, the corresponding eigenvalue is $0$.