Can someone help me find the inverse Laplace transform of $ \ln \! \left( 1 + \dfrac{1}{s^{2}} \right) $? I have no idea where to start.
Finding the inverse Laplace transform of $ \ln \! \left( 1 + \frac{1}{s^{2}} \right) $.
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The idea is to undo the operations you may find in the transform using the properties of the Laplace transform. The Laplace transform of the logarithm times Heaviside is essentially a logarithm divided by $s$. The transform of a derivative is essentially the transform of the function times $s$. And finally the transform of a function multiplied by an exponential is the transform of the function translated.
We can write
$$\begin{align}\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{s^2}\right)&=\ln(s+i)+\ln(s-i)-2\ln(s)\\&=(s+i)\frac{\ln(s+i)+\gamma}{s+i}+(s-i)\frac{\ln(s-i)+\gamma}{s-i}-2s\frac{\ln(s)+\gamma}{s}\end{align}$$
We know that $$\mathcal{L}(-\ln(t)u(t))=\frac{\ln(s)+\gamma}{s}$$
Therefore
$$\mathcal{L}\left(D\left(-\ln(t)u(t)\right)\right)=s\frac{\ln(s)+\gamma}{s}$$
where $D$ is derivative and
$$\mathcal{L}\left(e^{\pm it}D\left(-\ln(t)u(t)\right)\right)=(s\pm i)\frac{\ln(s\pm i)+\gamma}{s\pm i}$$
Now you can complete it.
The Gamma Function $\Gamma$ is defined as
$$\Gamma(z) = \int_0^{\infty} t^{z-1}e^{-t}dt$$
for $\text{Re}\{z\}>0$.
We can write this integral representation as a Laplace Transform by letting $t \to st$. Then, we have
$$\begin{align} \Gamma(z) &= \int_0^{\infty} (st)^{z-1}e^{-st}sdt\\\\ &=s^z\int_0^{\infty} t^{z-1}e^{-st}dt \end{align}$$
The derivative of the Gamma Function follows directly as
$$\begin{align} \Gamma'(z) &= s^z\log (s)\int_0^{\infty} t^{z-1}e^{-st}dt+s^z\int_0^{\infty} t^{z-1}e^{-st}\log (t) \,dt \end{align}$$
Note that $\Gamma'(1)=\log(s)+s\mathscr{L}\{\log (t)\}(s)$, where
$$\mathscr{L}\{\log (t)\}(s)=\int_0^{\infty}\log(t) e^{-st}dt$$
is the Laplace Transform of $\log (t)$. Solving for $\log (s)$ yields
$$\log(s) = -\gamma -s\,\mathscr{L}\{\log (t)\}(s)$$
where we have noted that $\Gamma'(1)=-\gamma$, is the Euler-Mascheroni constant.
Now, following the decomposition given by Alamos, we have that
$$\begin{align} \log\left(\frac{s^2+1}{s^2}\right)&=\log(s+i)+\log(s-i)-2\log(s)\\\\ &=-(s+i)\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)e^{-(s+i)t}dt-(s-i)\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)e^{-(s-i)t}dt+2s\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)e^{-st}dt\\\\ &=\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)\frac{d}{dt}(e^{-(s+i)t})dt+\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)\frac{d}{dt}(e^{-(s-i)t})dt-2\int_0^{\infty} \log(t)\frac{d}{dt}(e^{-st})dt\\\\ &=2\int_0^{\infty}\log(t)\frac{d}{dt}((\cos(t)-1)e^{-st})dt\\\\ &=2\int_0^{\infty}\frac{1-\cos(t)}{t}e^{-st}dt\\\\ &=2\mathscr{L}\left(\frac{1-\cos(t)}{t}\right)(s) \end{align}$$
Inverting both sides reveals
$$\mathscr{L}^{-1}\left(\log\left(\frac{s^2+1}{s^2}\right)\right)(t)=2\,\,\frac{1-\cos(t)}{t}$$