Since $\left|\dfrac{1}{e^z}\right|<1$ I figured I could rewrite the given function into a geometric series:
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(e^z)^n}$$
But this seems to be way off the mark. I think I am confused about when one is supposed to rewrite the expressions into series. I guess this expression above isn't correct because I need to express $e^z$ into a series. I can't really make sense of how to do that though.
Should I use $\displaystyle e^z=1+\frac{z}{1!}+\frac{z^2}{2!}+...=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^n}{n!}$
giving
$$\frac{1}{e^z-1}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^j}{j!})^n}$$
This doesn't make a lot of sense to me.
One may observe that $\displaystyle z \to \frac{z}{e^z-1}$ is analytic in $0<|z|<2\pi$, then it admits a power series expansion $$ \frac{z}{e^z-1}=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}b_n\frac{z^n}{n!}, \quad 0<|z|<2\pi, \tag1 $$ with $b_0=1$, $b_1=-1/2$.
Then, multiplying $(1)$ by $\displaystyle e^z$, $$ \left(\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}b_k\frac{z^k}{k!}\right)\left(\sum\limits_{m=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^m}{m!}\right)=\frac{z}{e^z-1}e^z=z+\frac{z}{e^z-1}=z+\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}b_n\frac{z^n}{n!},\tag2 $$ using the Cauchy product, one gets $$ b_n=\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}b_k, \quad n>1, \quad b_0=1,\, b_1=-1/2,\tag3 $$ but from $(3)$ one sees that these are just the standard Bernoulli numbers: $B_n$.
Finally, we have